VEEAM VMCE_V8 exam - VEEAM Certified Engineer (VMCE8) exam dumps with answers

Free Veeam VMCE_V8 VEEAM Certified Engineer (VMCE8) exam dumps & updated practice test questions to study and pass quickly and easily.

100% Free Real Veeam VMCE_V8 VEEAM Certified Engineer (VMCE8) practice test questions uploaded by real users who have passed their own exam and verified all the incorrect answers.

VMCE_V8 Veeam Certified Engineer v8 

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1) Which of these statements regarding Backup Jobs are true? (select two) 

A. If a new VM is added to a VM container after a backup job is created, the job will automatically be updated to include the added VM. 

B. During every job run, Veeam Backup & Replication checks disk space on the destination storage. 

C. It is not possible to define VM backup order. 

D. Veeam offers a free hosted SMTP server to send out e-mail notifications 

E. It is possible to manually start and complete backup job outside backup window

Correct Answer: AB 

 

2) Which statements regarding backup jobs are true? (select two) 

A. By default, Veeam Backup & Replication performs the backup in the reversed incremental backup mode.
B. It is possible to configure both secondary and tertiary destination for backup jobs.
C. Backup jobs offer three different backup modes.
D. For traditional incremental backups it is required to configure either synthetic full or active full backups.
E. By default, Veeam Backup & Replication performs the backup in the incremental backup mode.

Correct Answer: BC 

3) Which of these statements regarding Application Groups are true? (select two) 

A. Heartbeat/Ping/Script tests can be performed against ANY guest operating system. 

B. The application group creates the "surroundings" for the verified VM(s). 

C. VMs can mixed from both Microsoft Hyper-V and VMware vSphere 

D. VMs added must belong to the same platform (Microsoft Hyper-V or VMware vSphere) 

E. The application group creates the "surroundings" for the verified VM(s). VM(s) inside application group are not tested/verified. 

Correct Answer: AB

 

4) With which version(s) Is it possible to perform backup recovery verification? 

A. Standard 

B. All editions 

C. Enterprise Plus 

D. Enterprise and Enterprise Plus 

E. Free 

Correct Answer: B 

5) Which statements are true regarding SureReplica compared to SureBackup? (select two) 

A. SureReplica is available for both Microsoft Hyper-V and VMware vSphere 

B. SureReplica does not require the vPower engine 

C. On-Demand Sandbox operations are faster 

D. SureReplica offers more verification tests 

E. Replication job can be performed while SureReplica job is running. 

Correct Answer: BC

 

6) Which statements are true regarding vPower for VMware vSphere? (select three)

A. vPower is not supported for non-ESXi version of VMware vSphere. 

B. vPower is used to enable Instant VM Recovery. 

C. vPower is used to recover files from tape. 

D. vPower always uses NFS to mount VM(s) from a Backup Repository. 

E. vPower is used to enable SureBackup recovery verification. 

Correct Answer: ABC

 

7) Which statements are true regarding Full VM restores? (select three) 

A. Direct SAN access is the fastest. 

B. Physical backup proxies provide multiple transport modes. 

C. Using a VM as backup proxy with HotAdd access to the source datastore reduces load on the network. 

D. Restoring to the original location mitigates the risk of operator's errors. 

E. Restoring to the original location the primary VM is automatically deleted before restore 

Correct Answer: ACE

 

8) Which of these statements regarding Instant VM Recovery are true? 

A. Instant VM Recovery only works from newest restore point. 

B. Migration to production after Instant VM Recovery allows to change disk type. 

C. Instant VM Recovery is only available in paid editions. 

D. Instant VM Recovery allows a VM to be fully booted and all applications up and running in as little as 2 minutes 

E. After migration to production has completed the Instant VM Recovery, VM is automatically no longer published. 

Correct Answer: D 

 

9) Which of these statements regarding Replica failover/failback are true? 

A. After comitting failback, the failback protective snapshot that saves the pre-failback state of a VM replica is deleted. 

B. After commiting failback, replication activities for the VM which you failed back are NOT resumed automatically. 

C. When you undo failover, the VM replica is reverted to its pre-failover state, powered off and all changes that have taken place since the VM replica was powered on are deleted. 

D. After undoing failover has completed, you will need to reconfigure the replica job before it will start again. 

E. It is only possible to failover one VM at a time.

Correct Answer: BD  

10) Which statements regarding Guest OS File Recovery are true? (select two) 

A. For FAT, NTFS and ReFS the built-in file-level restore functionality is used. 

B. MultiOS file-level recovery allows reading data from ReiserFS, JFS, JFFS2 and XFS 

C. MultiOS file-level recovery allows reading data from 18 different file systems. 

D. When performing recovery through the FTP server, you can recover files with correct permissions. 

E. When performing recovery directly to a Linux host, you can recover files with correct permissions. 

Correct Answer: AD

 

11) Veeam Backup & Replication provides File-Level recovery for any file system? 

A. Yes, all file systems are fully supported. 

B. Yes, but a support case will have to be opened. 

C. No, this is not supported. 

D. Yes, but you need to install 3rd party tool Portlock Explorer. 

E. Yes, but it requires manual work 

Correct Answer: A

 

12) Which are valid Restore Options in the Restore Wizard? (select three) 

A. Entire VM (excluding registration) 

B. Guest files (Linux) 

C. Instant VM Recovery 

D. Application Items 

E. VM hard disks 

Correct Answer: CDE

 

13) Which of the following statements are true regarding Veeam Explorer for Exchange? 

A. Veeam Explorer for Exchange supports Microsoft Exchange 2007, 2010 and 2013. 

B. When you run the Exchange Items Restore wizard on a VM backed up using VSS, the ese.dll file is added automatically 

C. Veeam Explorer for Exchange is only available for paid editions. 

D. The Extensible Storage Engine DLL file can be found on the Microsoft Exchange Server distribution CD at X:\Setup\ServerRoles\Bin\ese.dll 

E. Veeam Explorer for Exchange requires a special dynamic link library - ese.dll - otherwise it can only export folders/items to .PST files. 

Correct Answer: D  

14) Which statements regarding Veeam Backup & Replication's WAN Acceleration are true? (Select two) 

A. Veeam recommends SSD drives for WAN acceleration cache. 

B. Only Backup Copy and Replica jobs can use WAN acceleration 

C. Veeam recommends high capacity NL-SAS drives for WAN acceleration cache. 

D. All job types can use WAN acceleration

E. Only Backup Copy jobs can use WAN acceleration 

Correct Answer: AB 

15) Which statement regarding Enterprise Manager is true? 

A. RESTful API is an optional feature. 

B. Only XML format is currently supported for RESTful API for resource representation. 

C. Users with Portal User role can access VMs from their restore scope in VMs and/or Files tab and generate reports as permitted by their settings. 

D. Restore scope can be customized if you have Enterprise Edition. 

E. Users with Restore Operator role can access VMs from their restore scope in VMs and/or Files tab, as well as reports for these VMs; they can also perform restore operations as permitted by their settings. 

Correct Answer: A

 

16) Which of these statements regarding Veeam Backup & Replications Powershell Snap-in are true? (Select two) 

A. To see a list of available commands use: Get-VBRCommands 

B. The PowerShell Snap-In is an optional component. 

C. The PowerShell Snap-In is installed by default. 

D. The PowerShell Snap-In is available for all editions. 

E. A PowerShell script could be run as a post-job activity. 

Correct Answer: AB 

17) Which statements regarding various product features are true? (select three) 

A. 1-Click-Restore is used in Backup Browser and Veeam Explorers to allow restore to original location. 

B. 1-Click-Restore is used in Enterprise Manager 

C. Standard Edition allows browsing and searching for files in both current and archived backups (moved to tape) 

D. All editions (incl. free edition) offers tape functionality 

E. You can clone existing jobs and edit their settings from Enterprise Manager web UI 

Correct Answer: ABC

 

18) Which Backup Mode forces deleted VMs to be purged from Backup Repository, when (deleted) VM Retention policy is active? (Select two) 

A. Forward Incremental - Active full 

B. Forward Incremental - Synthetic Full without transform 

C. Reverse Incremental 

D. All Forward Incremental 

E. Forward Incremental - Synthetic Full with transform 

Correct Answer: AE 

19) What is the lowest interval you can schedule a backup job to run at? 

A. Continuously 

B. Daily 

C. Every minute 

D. Hourly 

E. Every 5 minutes 

Correct Answer: B

 

20) Is it possible to use Change Block Tracking (CBT) with Hyper-V? 

A. No, for Hyper-V hosts a proprietary filtering mechanism is used. 

B. Yes, but only for gen 2 virtual machines using VHDX. 

C. Yes, Veeam Backup & Replication installs a file system filter driver on every host. 

D. Yes, Hyper-V has built-in Change Block Tracking just like vSphere has. 

Correct Answer: C 

 

21) What effect will changing the compressing settings for a backup job have? 

A. New compression settings are applied at the next run of the job. Previously created backup files are not affected. 

B. New compression settings are not applied until an active full backup has been performed. Previously created backup files are re-processed. 

C. New compression settings are applied at the next run of the job. Previously created backup files are reprocessed.

D. It is not possible to change compression level after first backup has been run. 

E. New compression settings are not applied until an active full backup has been performed. Previously created backup files are not affected. 

Correct Answer: E 

 

22) What effect will changing the deduplication settings for a backup job have? 

A. New deduplication settings are not applied until an active full backup has been performed. Previously created backup files are re-processed. 

B. New deduplication settings are applied at the next run of the job. Previously created backup files are reprocessed. 

C. New deduplication settings are applied at the next run of the job. Previously created backup files are not affected. 

D. It is not possible to change deduplication level after first backup has been run. 

E. New deduplication settings are not applied until an active full backup has been performed. Previously created backup files are not affected. 

Correct Answer: B 

 

23) How often can you schedule Veeam ONE Reporter to perform data collection? (select two) 

A. Every X minute(s) 

B. Every X second(s) 

C. Every X hour(s) 

D. Data collection can not be performed manually. 

E. Every X day(s) 

Correct Answer: CE 

 

24) Which deployment scenarios exist for Veeam ONE? (select two)

A. Physical machine(s) 

B. Advanced 

C. Typical 

D. Virtual Machine(s) 

E. Client/Server 

Correct Answer: BC 

 

25) Which of these are valid Virtual Infrastructure Summary dashboards in Veeam ONE? (select two) 

A. Hyper-V Summary 

B. vSphere Summary 

C. Virtual Infrastructure Summary 

D. Virtual Machine Summary 

E. NFS Share Summary 

Correct Answer: CD 

26) Which of these statements regarding Veeam ONE Custom Alerts are true? (select three) 

A. Custom Alerts support Trigger type: Rule for specific conditions or state 

B. Custom Alerts support rule condition: VMware VM tools out of date 

C. Custom Alerts support Trigger type: Event based rules 

D. Custom Alerts support rule condition: Resource usage is out of allowed range 

E. Custom Alerts support rule condition: Snapshot size for VM is inside allowed range 

Correct Answer: BCD

 

27) Which are supported replication targets? (select three) 

A. Microsoft Hyper-V standalone host 

B. VMware ESX(i) standalone host 

C. VMware vCenter server 

D. Amazon EC2 

E. VMware vCloud Director 

 Correct Answer: ABC 

28) Which can be added as Backup Repositories? (select three) 

A. Linux Server 

B. SMBv3 

C. Microsoft Windows Server 

D. NFS 

E. CIFS 

Correct Answer: ACE 

 

29) Which statements regarding initial configuration are true? (select two) 

A. Linux based backup repository implements vPower NFS server 

B. Microsoft Windows based backup repository implements vPower NFS server 

C. VMware Backup Proxy has Encrypt LAN traffic in network mode enabled by default. 

D. SMBv3 clusters are supported - Standalone SMBv3 servers are not supported. 

E. Managed Linux servers must have SSH and Perl installed. 

Correct Answer: BE 

 

30) Which of these statements regarding initial configuration are true? (select two) 

A. It is possible to limit read throughput (egestion rate) on a backup repository. 

B. When deploying a backup proxy it is recommended to use as many concurrent tasks as server resources and backup target can handle. 

C. It is possible to limit write throughput (ingestion rate) on a backup repository. 

D. VMware vCloud Director 1.5 or later are supported when adding a managed server. 

E. Microsoft Hyper-V 2008 or later are supported when adding a managed server. 

Correct Answer: CE 

 

31) Is Veeam Backup & Replication able to backup multiple VMs at once using VeeamZIP? 

A. Yes, but only in Enterprise Plus edition. 

B. No, it is never possible to backup multiple VMs at once using VeeamZIP. 

C. Yes, in all paid editions. 

D. Yes, but only in Enterprise or Enterprise Plus editions. 

E. Yes, this is possible in all editions. 

Correct Answer: C

 

32) Which statements are true regarding Hyper-V Change Block Tracking? (select two) 

A. The Veeam CBT driver is activated on a Hyper-V when the host is first addressed by a job with enabled CBT. 

B. Information on data blocks that have changed is registered in special .ctk files 

C. Information on data blocks that have changed is registered in special .ctp files 

D. The Veeam CBT driver is installed and activated on every Hyper-V host that is added to the list of managed server. 

E. The Veeam CBT driver is installed and activated on a Hyper-V when the host is first addressed by a job with enabled CBT. 

Correct Answer: AC 

 

33) Which compression level is used by VeeamZIP?

A. No compression is used 

B. Always High 

C. Compression is optional 

D. Always extreme 

E. Always Optimal 

Correct Answer: C 

 

34) Are you forced to add VMware or Microsoft virtual infrastructure during Veeam ONE setup? 

A. Yes, but you are only forced if you have already installed Veeam Management Pack. 

B. Yes, adding virtual infrastructure during setup is required. 

C. Yes, but you are only forced if you are installing Veeam ONE as an advanced deployment. 

D. No, it is possible to skip adding virtual infrastructure during setup. 

E. Yes, but you are only forced if you have already installed Veeam Enterprise Manager. 

Correct Answer: C 

 

35) Using Hyper-V offhost proxy has the following requirements? (Select three)

A. Shared storage must be HP StoreVirtual, HP StoreVirtual VSA or HP StoreServ (3PAR) 

B. Offhost Proxy must have VSS hardware provider installed. This VSS hardware provider is supplied by storage vendor. 

C. Offhost Proxy must have access to shared storage 

D. Offhost Proxy must have Hyper-V role enabled 

E. Offhost Proxy must have VSS hardware provider installed. This VSS hardware provider is supplied by Veeam limiting it to specific vendors. 

Correct Answer: ABC 

 

36) Which statements about Parallel Processing are true? (select two) 

A. Parallel Processing is limited to four virtual drives per job. 

B. When upgrading Veeam Backup & Replication to v7 from an earlier version Parallel Processing is disabled. 

C. Parallel processing is not an option: It is ALWAYS enabled! 

D. Each data processing task within a job requires one CPU core. 

E. Parallel Processing can be disabled per job. 

Correct Answer: CD 

37) Which hypervisors are supported in Veeam Backup & Replication? (select three) 

A. Free Microsoft Hyper-V 2008 R2 SP1 or later 

B. Free VMware ESXi 5.0 or later 

C. VMware ESX(i) 3.5 

D. Citrix XenServer 6.0 or later 

E. VMware Infrastructure 3.5 

Correct Answer: ACE 

 

38) Which previous versions are supported when upgrading directly to Veeam Backup & Replication version 7? (select three) 

A. 6.5 

B. 6.0 

C. 6.1 

D. 6.2 

E. 5.0

Correct Answer: ABE

 

39) Which of these statements are true about Veeam Explorer for Sharepoint? (Select three) 

A. Remote BLOB stores are fully supported. 

B. The staging Microsoft SQL Server must run on the machine where Veeam Explorer for Sharepoint is installed. 

C. Remote BLOB stores are not supported. 

D. It is possible to use the Microsoft SQL Server Express 2008 R2 SP1 shipping with Veeam Backup & Replication as a staging server. 

E. Remote BLOB stores created with Microsoft Sharepoint Server 2010 (Foundation, Server and Enterprise editions) are supported, if virtualized on VMware or Hyper-V platform. 

Correct Answer: ADE 

 

40) Are credentials included in configuration backups? 

A. Yes, both username(s) and password(s) - but only if restored to same machine. 

B. Yes, both username(s) and password(s) 

C. Yes, but only username(s) are saved. 

D. No, credentials are never included. 

E. Yes, but it is optional to include password(s). 

Correct Answer: C 

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